I have an issue with this first paper. First paragraph, last sentence, "pain...associated with ...potential nociception". Is not pain due to potential nociception, pain without nociception?

Agreed. Isn't potential tissue damage going to cause nociception, and therefore be different than potential nociception?

Initial comment, not having read the whole article. At the end of the first paragraph, suggesting a slight reframing of the IASP definition, the idea of "actual or potential nociception". I think you are arguing we can't have pain without it, but is not "potential nociception" pain without it?

Yes, gives the illness/symptoms/etc more power and emphasis in our awareness.